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Microbiology 2Marks Q&A for semester exam

Microbiology 2 Marks

  1. Name two contributions of Robert Koch.
    o Identified the causative agents of tuberculosis, cholera, and anthrax.
    o Developed Koch’s postulates for identifying pathogens.
  2. Name two uses of Dettol Solution.
    o Antiseptic for minor cuts and wounds.
    o Disinfectant for household cleaning.
  3. Name two killed vaccines.
    o Polio (Inactivated Poliovirus Vaccine, IPV).
    o Hepatitis A vaccine.
  4. Name two DNA viruses.
    o Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV).
    o Hepatitis B Virus (HBV).
  5. Name two bacteria causing diarrhoea.
    o Escherichia coli.
    o Salmonella species.
  6. Define bacteriophage.
    o A bacteriophage is a virus that infects and replicates within bacteria.
  7. Name two anti-parasitic drugs.
    o Metronidazole.
    o Albendazole.
  8. Name two fungi causing otomycosis.
    o Aspergillus species.
    o Candida species.
  9. Name two infections caused by herpes virus.
    o Herpes Simplex Virus (cold sores, genital herpes).
    o Varicella-Zoster Virus (chickenpox, shingles).
  10. Define DTP vaccine.
    o A vaccine that protects against Diphtheria, Tetanus, and Pertussis.
  11. Define flagella.
    o Flagella are long, whip-like structures that help in bacterial motility.
  12. Enlist the types of bacterial spores.
    o Endospores.
    o Exospores.
  13. Name four clostridium species.
    o Clostridium tetani.
    o Clostridium botulinum.
    o Clostridium difficile.
    o Clostridium perfringens.
  14. Define antibiotic-associated colitis. Name the causative agents.
    o Inflammation of the colon caused by antibiotic use.
    o Primarily caused by Clostridium difficile.
  15. What is DPT vaccine? What is the route of administration?
    o A vaccine for Diphtheria, Pertussis, and Tetanus.
    o Administered intramuscularly.
  16. Enumerate the types of ELISA.
    o Direct ELISA.
    o Indirect ELISA.
    o Sandwich ELISA.
    o Competitive ELISA.
  17. Name four RNA viruses.
    o Influenza virus.
    o HIV.
    o Hepatitis C virus.
    o Rabies virus.
  18. Define otomycotic fungi.
    o Fungi that cause ear infections.
  19. Define Trichomonas vaginalis.
    o A protozoan parasite that causes trichomoniasis.
  20. Name the infections caused by Ancylostoma duodenale.
    o Hookworm infection, leading to anemia and malnutrition.
  21. Name two live vaccines.
    o Measles, Mumps, and Rubella (MMR) vaccine.
    o Varicella (chickenpox) vaccine.
  22. Name two intestinal parasites.
    o Giardia lamblia.
    o Entamoeba histolytica.
  23. List four phases of bacterial growth curve.
    o Lag phase.
    o Log (exponential) phase.
    o Stationary phase.
    o Death phase.
  24. Define significant bacteriuria.
    o Presence of a high number of bacteria in the urine, indicating a urinary tract
    infection.
  25. Enlist non-suppurative complications of Streptococcus pyogenes.
    o Rheumatic fever.
    o Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis.
  26. Define inclusion body.
    o Intracellular aggregates of proteins or other substances.
    o Often found in viral infections.
  27. Name two morphological forms of Entamoeba histolytica.
    o Trophozoite.
    o Cyst.
  28. Define enrichment media.
    o A type of culture media used to enhance the growth of particular
    microorganisms.
  29. Enumerate four uses of microbiology for nurses.
    o Infection control.
    o Understanding disease mechanisms.
    o Antibiotic stewardship.
    o Patient education.
  30. Define oxidase test.
    o A test to identify bacteria that produce cytochrome oxidase.
  31. Two differences between active and passive immunity.
    o Active immunity involves the production of antibodies by the host.
    o Passive immunity involves the transfer of antibodies from another source.
  32. Name four disinfectants used in the wards.
    o Alcohol.
    o Chlorine bleach.
    o Hydrogen peroxide.
    o Quaternary ammonium compounds.
  33. Enumerate the uses of fumigation.
    o Sterilizing surgical instruments.
    o Disinfecting hospital rooms.
    o Pest control.
    o Preserving stored grains.
  34. Draw a neat labelled diagram of HIV.
    o (Diagram would be drawn here.)
  35. Define Negri bodies.
    o Cytoplasmic inclusions found in neurons infected by rabies virus.
  36. Mention the arboviral disease seen in India.
    o Dengue fever.
  37. Name two tapeworms.
    o Taenia solium.
    o Taenia saginata.
  38. List four opportunistic fungi.
    o Candida species.
    o Aspergillus species.
    o Cryptococcus neoformans.
    o Pneumocystis jirovecii.
  39. Mention two bacteria causing urinary tract infection.
    o Escherichia coli.
    o Proteus mirabilis.
  40. Define coagulase test.
    o A test used to differentiate Staphylococcus aureus from other staphylococci by
    detecting the enzyme coagulase.
  41. Draw a neat labelled diagram of IgA.
    o (Diagram would be drawn here.)
  42. Define urease test.
    o A test used to identify bacteria that produce the enzyme urease.
  43. Enlist the doses of DPT vaccine under one year age.
    o Initial dose at 2 months.
    o Second dose at 4 months.
    o Third dose at 6 months.
  44. Define MacConkey’s agar.
    o A selective and differential culture medium for Gram-negative bacteria.
  45. Write full form for RNTCP.
    o Revised National Tuberculosis Control Programme.
  46. Draw a neat labeled diagram of Trichomonas vaginalis.
    o (Diagram would be drawn here.)
  47. Mention two bacteria causing meningitis.
    o Neisseria meningitidis.
    o Streptococcus pneumoniae.
  48. Mention two vectors causing parasitic infection.
    o Anopheles mosquito (malaria).
    o Tsetse fly (sleeping sickness).
  49. Define catalase test.
    o A test used to identify organisms that produce the enzyme catalase.
  50. Draw a neat labelled diagram of IgM.
    o (Diagram would be drawn here.)
  51. Define blood agar.
    o A nutrient-rich culture medium used to grow a variety of bacteria and detect
    hemolytic activity.
  52. Define MMR vaccine.
    o A vaccine that protects against Measles, Mumps, and Rubella.
  53. Name four gram-negative bacilli.
    o Escherichia coli.
    o Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
    o Klebsiella pneumoniae.
    o Salmonella typhi.
  54. Define malignant pustule.
    o A primary skin lesion caused by Bacillus anthracis, characterized by a black
    necrotic center.
  55. Define differential media and give two examples.
    o Media that distinguish between different types of microorganisms based on
    their biological characteristics.
    o Examples: MacConkey agar, Mannitol salt agar.
  56. Draw a labelled diagram of immunoglobulin M (IgM).
    o (Diagram would be drawn here.)
  57. Enumerate morphology of Trichomonas.
    o Pear-shaped.
    o Four anterior flagella.
    o Undulating membrane.
  58. Define gonococci.
    o Bacteria of the genus Neisseria, specifically Neisseria gonorrhoeae, which
    causes gonorrhea.
  59. List two antiviral agents.
    o Acyclovir.
    o Oseltamivir.
  60. Define interferon.
    o Proteins produced by host cells in response to viral infections that help inhibit
    viral replication.
  61. List two contributions of Louis Pasteur.
    o Developed the process of pasteurization.
    o Developed vaccines for rabies and anthrax.
  62. Define Cryptosporidium.
    o A genus of protozoan parasites that cause cryptosporidiosis, leading to
    gastrointestinal illness.
  63. Enumerate morphology of Aspergillus.
    o Septate hyphae.
    o Conidiophores with a swollen vesicle at the tip.
    o Radiating chains of conidia.
  64. Define tyndallization.
    o A sterilization process involving intermittent heating to kill spores.
  65. Name four toxins of streptococci.
    o Streptolysin O.
    o Streptolysin S.
    o Erythrogenic toxin.
    o Streptococcal pyrogenic exotoxins (Spe).
  66. Name two bile-stained ova.
    o Ascaris lumbricoides.
    o Trichuris trichiura.
  67. Name four malarial parasites.
    o Plasmodium falciparum.
    o Plasmodium vivax.
    o Plasmodium ovale.
    o Plasmodium malariae.
  68. Define IgA.
    o Immunoglobulin A, an antibody that plays a crucial role in mucosal immunity.
  69. Name four bacteria causing food poisoning.
    o Staphylococcus aureus.
    o Clostridium perfringens.
    o Salmonella species.
    o Escherichia coli.
  70. Define indole test.
    o A biochemical test to determine the ability of an organism to produce indole
    from tryptophan.
  71. Name four organisms causing UTI.
    o Escherichia coli.
    o Proteus mirabilis.
    o Klebsiella pneumoniae.
    o Enterococcus faecalis.
  72. Name four enrichment media.
    o Blood agar.
    o Chocolate agar.
    o Selenite F broth.
    o Tetrathionate broth.
  73. Name two arboviruses.
    o Dengue virus.
    o Zika virus.
  74. Name two bacteria causing sexually transmitted diseases.
    o Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
    o Treponema pallidum.
  75. Define bacteriophage.
    o A virus that infects and replicates within bacteria.
  76. Draw a neat labelled diagram of the egg of Ascaris lumbricoides.
    o (Diagram would be drawn here.)
  77. Mention two blood-borne viral infections.
    o Hepatitis B.
    o HIV/AIDS.
  78. Define local immunity.
    o Immunity that is restricted to a specific part of the body, such as mucosal
    surfaces.
  79. Define oral polio vaccine.
    o A live attenuated vaccine administered orally to protect against poliomyelitis.
  80. Name two transport media.
    o Stuart’s medium.
    o Amies medium.
  81. Mention the lesions produced by Aspergillus fumigatus.
    o Pulmonary aspergillosis.
    o Aspergilloma (fungus ball).
  82. Name two antiviral agents.
    o Acyclovir.
    o Oseltamivir.
  83. Name two organisms causing urinary tract infections.
    o Escherichia coli.
    o Proteus mirabilis.
  84. Name two dermatophytes.
    o Trichophyton rubrum.
    o Microsporum canis.
  85. Define iatrogenic infection.
    o An infection resulting from medical treatment or procedures.
  86. Name two DNA viruses.
    o Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV).
    o Hepatitis B Virus (HBV).
  87. Name two methods of antibiotic sensitivity testing.
    o Disk diffusion (Kirby-Bauer) test.
    o E-test (Epsilometer test).
  88. Name two motile bacteria.
    o Escherichia coli.
    o Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
  89. Name two viruses causing diarrhoea.
    o Rotavirus.
    o Norovirus.
  90. Name two gram-positive cocci.
    o Staphylococcus aureus.
    o Streptococcus pyogenes.
  91. Name two diseases transmitted by mosquitoes.
    o Malaria.
    o Dengue fever.
  92. Name two zoonotic diseases.
    o Rabies.
    o Lyme disease.
  93. Define immunization.
    o The process by which a person is made immune or resistant to an infectious
    disease, typically by vaccination.
  94. Define negative staining.
    o A technique used in microscopy to create a dark background, making the
    specimen appear lighter.
  95. Write the principles of ELISA.
    o Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay (ELISA) detects the presence of
    antigens or antibodies using an enzyme-linked antigen or antibody as a
    marker.
  96. Name two spirochetes.
    o Treponema pallidum.
    o Borrelia burgdorferi.
  97. Define meningo cocci.
    o Neisseria meningitidis, a bacterium that causes meningitis.
  98. Enumerate four principles in the collection of specimens.
    o Use sterile containers.
    o Collect before starting antibiotics.
    o Label accurately.
    o Transport promptly to the laboratory.
  99. Name four gram-positive bacilli.
    o Bacillus anthracis.
    o Clostridium tetani.
    o Listeria monocytogenes.
    o Corynebacterium diphtheriae.
  100. Define Negri bodies.
     Cytoplasmic inclusions found in neurons infected by rabies virus.
  101. Define Cryptococcus.
     A genus of fungi, Cryptococcus neoformans, causing cryptococcosis, especially in
    immunocompromised individuals.
  102. Name the types of mosquitoes producing malaria.
     Anopheles mosquitoes, specifically Anopheles gambiae and Anopheles funestus.
  103. Gaseous sterilization.
     A method of sterilization using gases like ethylene oxide to sterilize heat-sensitive
    items.
  104. Catalase test.
     A test used to identify organisms that produce the enzyme catalase by breaking down
    hydrogen peroxide into water and oxygen.
  105. Name four methods of transmission of HIV virus.
     Sexual contact.
     Blood transfusion.
     Sharing needles.
     Mother-to-child during childbirth or breastfeeding.
  106. Mantoux test.
     A skin test to detect tuberculosis infection by injecting purified protein derivative
    (PPD) under the skin.
  107. VDRL test.
     A blood test to screen for syphilis by detecting antibodies produced in response to the
    infection.
  108. Name four complications of Plasmodium falciparum.
     Cerebral malaria.
     Severe anemia.
     Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS).
     Kidney failure.
  109. Name two fungal infections of the skin.
     Tinea pedis (athlete’s foot).
     Tinea corporis (ringworm).
  110. Name two methods of pasteurization.
     High-Temperature Short-Time (HTST) pasteurization.
     Ultra-High Temperature (UHT) pasteurization.
  111. Name four selective media.
     MacConkey agar.
     Mannitol salt agar.
     Thayer-Martin agar.
     Sabouraud dextrose agar.
  112. Describe the egg of Ascaris lumbricoides.
     Oval-shaped.
     Thick, mammillated outer shell.
     Golden-brown color.
  113. Name two methods to detect antibiotic sensitivity.
     Disk diffusion (Kirby-Bauer) test.
     E-test (Epsilometer test).
  114. Draw IgG.
     (Diagram would be drawn here.)
  115. Name two capsulated bacteria.
     Streptococcus pneumoniae.
     Haemophilus influenzae.
  116. Name two agglutination tests.
     Widal test (for typhoid fever).
     Latex agglutination test.
  117. Prophylaxis of hepatitis B.
     Hepatitis B vaccination.
     Immunoglobulin administration for post-exposure prophylaxis.
  118. Diagram of influenza virus.
     (Diagram would be drawn here.)
  119. Name two protozoal infections.
     Malaria (Plasmodium species).
     Amoebiasis (Entamoeba histolytica).
  120. Name two opportunistic fungi.
     Candida albicans.
     Pneumocystis jirovecii.
  121. Infections caused by Streptococcus species.
     Pharyngitis (Strep throat).
     Scarlet fever.
  122. Name two bacteria causing gas gangrene.
     Clostridium perfringens.
     Clostridium novyi.
  123. Define cross infection and nosocomial infection.
     Cross infection: Infection transmitted between patients within a healthcare setting.
     Nosocomial infection: Hospital-acquired infection.
  124. Define sterilization and disinfection.
     Sterilization: Complete elimination of all forms of microbial life.
     Disinfection: Reduction of microbial load to a safe level.
  125. What are inclusion bodies? Give an example.
     Intracellular aggregates of proteins or other substances.
     Example: Negri bodies in rabies.
  126. Name the antigen-presenting cells.
     Dendritic cells.
     Macrophages.
  127. Mention the viruses causing the common cold.
     Rhinovirus.
     Coronavirus.
  128. Define antiseptic.
     A substance that inhibits the growth of microorganisms on living tissue.
  129. Name the free-living amoeba.
     Naegleria fowleri.
     Acanthamoeba species.
  130. Draw a neat diagram of Clostridium tetani.
     (Diagram would be drawn here.)
  131. Define dimorphic fungi and give an example.
     Fungi that can exist in both yeast and mold forms.
     Example: Histoplasma capsulatum.
  132. Mention the post-streptococcal sequelae.
     Rheumatic fever.
     Post-streptococcal gl

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